What actually happened before writing existed
There is no surviving record of the first language, because languages left no physical trace before writing was invented. What we have are reconstructions, theories, and a few dead ends that look convincing until you actually read the primary sources.
qual foi o primeiro idioma do mundo
I ran into this question repeatedly when people started asking me about Proto-Indo-European and Sumerian at the same time, confusing two completely different timelines. The short version is: nobody knows. Not even close. The long version involves a lot of assumptions that most people don't realize they're making. The oldest written languages we can actually read are Sumerian and Egyptian, both appearing around 3400-3200 BCE in cuneiform and hieroglyphs respectively. But written language is not the same as spoken language, and spoken language predates writing by many thousands of years at least. Most linguists estimate that anatomically modern humans have been speaking for somewhere between 50,000 and 150,000 years, maybe more.
So the first language wasn't Sumerian. It was something else, something we have zero evidence for. Speech leaves no fossils. Sound doesn't preserve. Here is where it gets messier. A lot of people think that if we reconstruct proto-languages far enough back, we will eventually hit the original language. That intuition is wrong for a few reasons. Languages fragment and merge constantly. There is no single tree with one trunk. Human populations mixed, separated, mixed again, and their languages did the same. At some point, the signal becomes indistinguishable from noise. I spent about three weeks last year trying to trace a few Sumerian loanwords through to their supposed deeper origins and ended up in a paper that cited another paper that cited a guess from 1973. That is how deep this goes, and it is not a comforting place to be.
There is also the monogenesis versus polygenesis debate, which is really just a debate about whether all languages descend from one ancestral tongue or arose independently in multiple places. Both positions have supporters. Neither has proof. The evidence simply does not exist for either side to win convincingly.
What we actually know about early languages
We know Sumerian is a language isolate, meaning it has no known relatives. We know it was spoken in southern Mesopotamia and that its speakers built the first cities. We know Egyptian is an Afroasiatic language. We know that beyond these, our picture gets very blurry very fast. Proto-Indo-European is the reconstructed ancestor of a huge family including Sanskrit, Greek, Latin, Germanic, Celtic, and others. It likely existed somewhere in the Pontic-Caspian steppe roughly 4500-2500 BCE. But PIE itself is reconstructed, not directly attested. Every word you see listed for PIE is an educated guess based on systematic sound correspondences across descendant languages. Some of those guesses are solid. Many are not.
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The same applies to Proto-Afroasiatic, Proto-Uralic, Proto-Sino-Tibetan, and various other proposed proto-languages. Each one sits at a different distance from actual attestation, and the further back you go, the more speculative everything becomes. I had a situation once where a student handed me a chart claiming to show the migration path of the "first human language" based on mitochondrial DNA haplogroups. The chart was visually appealing and entirely wrong. Genetics can trace population movements. It cannot reconstruct vocabulary. Those are separate questions, and conflating them is one of the most common mistakes I see in this area.
Why the question keeps coming back
The attraction of finding a first language is understandable. It feels like finding the origin point of something fundamental to being human. But the problem is structural. Any language older than about 5,000-8,000 years is extremely difficult to reconstruct with confidence, and older than that is largely in the realm of speculation. Language change happens constantly. Vocabulary gets replaced. Grammar shifts. Sounds drift. After several millennia of continuous change, the overlap between two distantly related languages becomes so thin that systematic comparison stops working. That is why Proto-Indo-European is about as far back as comparative linguistics can reliably go, and even that distance is debated.
Some researchers have proposed links between huge language families, like Nostratic or Dené-Caucasian, but these proposals remain controversial and are not accepted by most mainstream linguists. The methodology is there, but the evidence is too thin to be conclusive.
What to do if you want to actually study this
Start with Sumerian and Old Egyptian if you want attested early languages. They are difficult but there are grammars, corpora, and dictionaries available. For the reconstruction side, look into Indo-European linguistics through works by scholars like Calvert Watkins or the newer approaches from the Berlin-Brandenburg Academy. There are online resources, though the quality varies widely. Be wary of anything that claims to have definitively identified the first language. It almost certainly does not know what it is talking about. The field does not work that way, and anyone saying otherwise is selling something.
The honest answer to qual foi o primeiro idioma do mundo remains: we do not know, and we may never know. What we do have is a patchwork of inscriptions, reconstructions, and theories, and the work of figuring out which pieces fit together is ongoing. It is slow, frustrating, and occasionally rewarding in exactly the way that any real scholarly pursuit is.